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Originally Posted by texassapper
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No, it means the IFR is about what has been publicized.
645,000 COVID deaths / (39 million x 2) infected = 0.83% IFR
The CDC used to include a best guess for the IFR for the entire population in its planning scenarios, and it was 0.75%. Later they segmented IFR by age groups, as you did when you were trying to explain how you came up with a .02% IFR. Anyway, the later numbers worked out to about a 0.8% IFR:
https://reason.com/2021/04/02/new-cd...ously-thought/
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Originally Posted by texassapper
Not only did the death rate change but the total numbers of deaths must change as well. The “died with covid” category requires assumptions about lethality that now change which means the count should be lower too. Less weight given to the category when assessing risk.
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Wrong again. You still haven't explained how we could be overcounting when 500,000 more people died in 2020 than 2019, but only 345,000 of those deaths were attributed to COVID by the CDC. See Dilbert's table,
https://www.eccie.net/showpost.php?p...82&postcount=8
This table was taken from this paper in the Journal of the American Medical Association:
https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jam...rticle/2778234
We've probably undercounted COVID deaths.
The CDC caught in another lie...
